1A6G;	P02185;	N/A;	MYOGLOBIN
1ABS;	Q0KIY8;	1.50;	MYOGLOBIN
1B0B;	P41260;	1.43;	HEMOGLOBIN
1BKR;	Q01082;	1.10;	SPECTRIN BETA CHAIN
1BVC;	P02185;	1.50;	APOMYOGLOBIN
1BVD;	P02185;	1.40;	APOMYOGLOBIN
1BZR;	P02185;	1.15;	PROTEIN (MYOGLOBIN)
1CTJ;	Q09099;	1.10;	CYTOCHROME C6
1E85;	P00138;	1.35;	CYTOCHROME C'
1ECA;	P02229;	1.40;	ERYTHROCRUORIN (AQUO MET)
1FAZ;	Q9Z4W2;	1.40;	PHOSPHOLIPASE A2
1FCX;	P13631;	1.47;	RETINOIC ACID RECEPTOR GAMMA-1
1FCY;	P13631;	1.30;	RETINOIC ACID RECEPTOR GAMMA-1
1FD0;	P13631;	1.38;	RETINOIC ACID RECEPTOR GAMMA-1
1FK5;	P19656;	1.30;	NONSPECIFIC LIPID-TRANSFER PROTEIN
1FLP;	P41260;	1.50;	HEMOGLOBIN I (AQUO MET)
1GBS;	P00717;	1.50;	AUSTRALIAN BLACK SWAN EGG WHITE LYSOZYME
1GJN;	P68082;	1.35;	MYOGLOBIN
1H1X;	P02185;	1.40;	MYOGLOBIN
1HBG;	P02216;	1.50;	HEMOGLOBIN (CARBONMONOXY)
1I2T;	O95071;	1.04;	HYD PROTEIN
1IE9;	P11473;	1.40;	VITAMIN D3 RECEPTOR
1J3F;	P02185;	1.45;	Myoglobin
1J77;	Q9RGD9;	1.50;	HemO
1JF3;	P02216;	1.40;	monomer hemoglobin component III
1JL7;	P02216;	1.40;	Monomer hemoglobin component III
1KG5;	P17802;	1.35;	A/G-specific adenine glycosylase
1L9L;	P22749;	0.92;	Granulysin
1LS9;	P83391;	1.30;	CYTOCHROME C6
1LWB;	Q9Z4W2;	1.05;	putative secreted protein
1M1Q;	Q8EDL6;	0.97;	small tetraheme cytochrome c
1MBC;	P02185;	1.50;	MYOGLOBIN
1NAZ;	P02185;	1.04;	Myoglobin
1NG6;	P54464;	1.40;	Hypothetical protein yqeY
1OAF;	Q43758;	1.40;	ASCORBATE PEROXIDASE
1OMR;	P21457;	1.50;	recoverin
1Q1F;	Q9ER97;	1.50;	Neuroglobin
1S9U;	Q8ZPK0;	1.38;	putative component of anaerobic dehydrogenases
1TBF;	O76074;	1.30;	cGMP-specific 3',5'-cyclic phosphodiesterase
1TQG;	Q56310;	0.98;	Chemotaxis protein cheA
1TUK;	P82900;	1.12;	Nonspecific lipid-transfer protein 2G
1TZV;	Q9X286;	1.35;	N utilization substance protein B homolog
1U7R;	P02185;	1.15;	Myoglobin
1U7S;	P02185;	1.40;	Myoglobin
1V0H;	Q43758;	1.46;	ASCORBATE PEROXIDASE
1V9Q;	P02185;	1.45;	Myoglobin
1WBE;	P68265;	1.36;	GLYCOLIPID TRANSFER PROTEIN
1WEI;	P17802;	1.45;	A/G-specific adenine glycosylase
1WPA;	Q16625;	1.50;	Occludin
1X3O;	Q5SL79;	1.50;	acyl carrier protein
1X46;	Q7M421;	1.50;	hemoglobin component VII
1X91;	Q9LNF2;	1.50;	invertase/pectin methylesterase inhibitor family protein
1XAW;	Q16625;	1.45;	Occludin
1XOZ;	O76074;	1.37;	cGMP-specific 3',5'-cyclic phosphodiesterase
1XQO;	Q8ZVK6;	1.03;	8-oxoguanine DNA glycosylase
1YU5;	P02640;	1.40;	Villin
1Z21;	P68590;	1.50;	Yop proteins translocation protein H
1Z3X;	Q8DIJ1;	1.50;	putative cytidyltransferase
2AX6;	P10275;	N/A;	Androgen receptor
2END;	P04418;	1.45;	ENDONUCLEASE V
2EVK;	P02185;	N/A;	Myoglobin
2F1S;	Q98325;	1.40;	Viral CASP8 and FADD-like apoptosis regulator
2FQ3;	P32591;	1.40;	Transcription regulatory protein SWI3
2FRJ;	P68082;	1.30;	Myoglobin
2FUP;	Q9HYP4;	1.48;	hypothetical protein PA3352
2G3H;	N/A;	1.40;	globin
2G7S;	Q8UIL4;	1.40;	transcriptional regulator, TetR family
2GGN;	Q43758;	1.35;	cytosolic ascorbate peroxidase 1
2GHC;	Q43758;	1.25;	cytosolic ascorbate peroxidase 1
2HBG;	P02216;	1.50;	HEMOGLOBIN (DEOXY)
2HYV;	P07355;	1.42;	Annexin A2
2I53;	O75909;	1.50;	Cyclin K
2II2;	Q4VPP2;	1.10;	Alpha-11 giardin
2IMS;	Q16611;	1.48;	Apoptosis regulator BAK
2JEK;	O07756;	1.38;	RV1873
2LIS;	P04552;	1.35;	SPERM LYSIN
2MBW;	Q0KIY8;	1.50;	MYOGLOBIN
2NR7;	Q7MXB3;	1.30;	Secretion activator protein, putative
2NSZ;	Q61823;	1.15;	Programmed cell death protein 4
2O37;	P25294;	1.25;	Protein SIS1
2O7A;	N/A;	0.84;	Lysozyme
2OSS;	O60885;	1.35;	Bromodomain-containing protein 4
2OVJ;	Q9H0H5;	N/A;	Rac GTPase-activating protein 1